samhradh wrote:$50,000 in spending = 100,000 miles.
Redeem 100,000 miles for $1,000 in travel spend = 0 miles.
You now have 10,000 miles remaining.
For every dollar spent, you get double it in miles, plus a 10% dividend on the miles you spent if you redeemed for travel. 1 mile = .01 cents. That's how it works. That's why I don't follow you.
I actually got 2.22%
This is how I figured...
100K spend = $2k, and when redeemed, you get $200. Effectively a 10% discount.
In that context, assume that your $2k is a 90% purchase towards some travel expense.
Some basic algebra will show 0.9x = $2000, where x=travel expense.
this calculates to x=$2222.2222~
Now, apply that to your 100K spend, and you are at 0.022222222~%
The problem i find with some of these funky calculations is that some people like to apply future 10% redemptions into the first one, and that causes calculations to be higher than they really are.
That said, for practical purposes, you are only really getting 2% back, and an added .02% discount in your subsequent purchases that you've received from previous. So you're effectively using 2.2%. Once you start reaching 0.02%, it becomes very minor. We're talking 20 dollars and change for a 100k spend.
So what are we fussing over again?